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UPSC EPFO Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner: all tests of this exam

Exam-style test

EPFO APFC Mock 3

Original bilingual EPFO APFC full-length practice mock: 120 questions, 300 marks and 120 minutes. This is independently authored practice, not a UPSC previous-year question paper or an official paper. Current affairs are framed as of 15 October 2026. Subject allocation and the 120-question count are editorial practice choices, not official subject-wise quotas. General English target text remains in English, with Hindi directions and explanations where appropriate.

Before you start

  • One timer for the whole test: 2 hours.
  • The clock runs from the moment you start, even if you leave.
  • Right answer +2.5; a wrong answer costs 1/3 of the question's marks. Unanswered questions cost nothing.
  • Questions come in Hindi and English. Switch any question with “Language”; questions in English only cannot switch.
  • Only saved answers count. “Save & Next” saves the answer on screen, and so does “Mark for Review & Next”: a flagged answer still counts.
  • At zero the test submits itself.

You have 120 minutes for 120 single-correct-answer questions. The clock runs continuously throughout the timed attempt. Each correct answer earns 2.5 marks. Each incorrect answer deducts exactly one-third of the marks assigned to that question (2.5/3). Unanswered questions score zero. Select one option, A–D, for each question you choose to answer. Review your selections before submitting. This is exam mode: correctness, explanations and feedback are available only after submission. You may use the English or Hindi version. For General English, the English passage, sentence or answer choices are deliberately retained to preserve the language test. This is original practice material, not an official paper or a previous-year paper. The current-affairs cutoff is 15 October 2026.

Question palette colours

  • Not visitedNot opened yet
  • Not answeredOpened, but no answer saved
  • AnsweredAnswer saved; it counts
  • Marked for reviewTo look at again; it does not count
  • Answered & marked for reviewTo look at again; the answer counts

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Save & Next
Saves the answer and opens the next question. On a section's last question it asks before moving to the next section.
Mark for Review & Next
Marks the question to look at again and moves on. If an option is chosen, that answer still counts.
Clear Response
Removes the chosen option.
A number in the palette
Opens that question, but does not save the answer on screen. To save, press “Save & Next”.
Questions120
Marks300
Time2 hours
Per wrong answer−1/3
Default language for questions
You can also change it during the test.

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Sample questions with solutions

A few questions like the ones in this test, with the right answer and why.

  1. Question 1
    Choose the correct option to complete the sentence. By the time the inspector arrived yesterday, the clerk _____ all the files.
    • has arranged
    • will have arranged
    • had arrangedRight answer
    • has been arranging
    Explanation

    “Had arranged” places the completed arrangement before another event in the past, the inspector’s arrival. The other options do not fit this past-time sequence.

    Learning tip: For a completed event earlier than another past event, check whether had + past participle fits.

  2. Question 2
    In a Central-sphere establishment, an employee has wages of ₹18,000 for a month. Otherwise lawful deductions under section 18(2) of the Code on Wages total ₹10,800. No special provision of another law applies. Under the Code and the 2026 Central Rules, how should the employer proceed?
    • Deduct at most ₹9,000 now and carry forward ₹1,800, respecting the later monthly ceiling.Right answer
    • Deduct all ₹10,800 because each deduction is independently lawful.
    • Deduct at most ₹13,500 because all authorised deductions have a 75% ceiling.
    • Cancel the entire ₹10,800 permanently because the total exceeds the ceiling.
    Explanation

    The ordinary aggregate ceiling is 50% of the wages for the wage period: ₹18,000 × 50% = ₹9,000. Rule 13 provides for carrying excess authorised deductions forward and recovering them in instalments without crossing the later monthly ceiling. A deduction can be individually authorised yet still subject to the aggregate cap; excess is not automatically extinguished.

    Learning tip: Check both tests: is the deduction authorised, and does the total stay within the wage-period ceiling?

    Sources checked 11 October 2026:
    https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/15793/1/aA2019-29.pdf
    https://www.labour.gov.in/static/uploads/2026/05/6eb0c35ba63b776487a025e5123b6b12.pdf

  3. Question 3
    A sole proprietor begins with cash of ₹2,40,000 as capital, buys equipment for ₹60,000 in cash, and then purchases goods worth ₹45,000 on credit. There are no other transactions or taxes. What are total assets and outside liabilities immediately afterwards?
    • ₹2,40,000 and ₹45,000
    • ₹2,85,000 and ₹45,000Right answer
    • ₹2,25,000 and nil
    • ₹2,85,000 and ₹1,05,000
    Explanation

    Buying equipment for cash changes the composition of assets, not their total. The credit purchase adds ₹45,000 to both inventory and liabilities. Assets = ₹2,40,000 + ₹45,000 = ₹2,85,000; outside liabilities = ₹45,000.

    Learning tip: Track each transaction through Assets = Liabilities + Capital.

    Sources checked 11 October 2026:
    https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/keac103.pdf

  4. Question 4
    Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in CAPITALS in the sentence. The witness gave a LACONIC reply and declined to elaborate.
    • evasive
    • emotional
    • terseRight answer
    • inaccurate
    Explanation

    “Laconic” describes expression in very few words, so “terse” is the closest choice. A brief reply is not necessarily evasive or inaccurate.

    Learning tip: Distinguish the manner of expression from its truth or intention.

    Sources checked 11 October 2026:
    https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/laconic

  5. Question 5
    A factory pays men more than women solely because of gender for the same work. It proposes to comply with the Code on Wages, 2019 by reducing the men’s wage rate to the women’s rate. Which statement is correct?
    • The proposal is valid if both rates exceed the minimum wage.
    • The employer cannot reduce any employee’s wage rate for this purpose.Right answer
    • The proposal is valid if a majority of employees approve it.
    • Gender-based wage equality applies only at the time of recruitment.
    Explanation

    Section 3(1) prohibits gender discrimination in wages by the same employer for the same work or work of a similar nature. Section 3(2)(i) separately prohibits reducing any employee’s wage rate for the purpose of complying with that equality requirement. Paying above the minimum wage does not remove this duty, and majority approval does not authorise the proposed reduction. The rule concerns wages during employment, not only recruitment.

    Learning tip: Keep two duties separate: eliminate gender discrimination and do not achieve compliance by cutting someone’s wage rate.

    Sources checked 11 October 2026:
    https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/15793/1/aA2019-29.pdf